Just asking…

Maybe this can be answered by Kegasus, or any fan of horse racing. Considering that the winners of the Kentucky Derby has been a huge underdog more often than not of late, how come that unlikely winner is always the overwhelming odds-on favorite for the Preakness Stakes? How come the results of the Derby is considered the most accurate indicator for the Preakness, and not the results and analyses of the previous 16 months? For once, I’d like to hear a pundit say something along the lines of, “The result at Churchill Downs was a fluke, and we don’t expect to see that happening again in two weeks at Pimlico.”

I have nothing against Animal Kingdom. (I mean, geez he’s a horse, for crissake). But in wake of the today’s tragic death of Randy Savage, I’m rooting for Mucho Macho Man to win.


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